Glossary entry (derived from question below)
French term or phrase:
(... ayant opté pour) l'assujettissement du loyer à la T.V.A.
English translation:
(as ... has opted) for the rent to be subject to VAT
Added to glossary by
Tony M
Jan 22, 2012 09:46
12 yrs ago
5 viewers *
French term
l'assujettissement dudit loyer à la T.V.A.
French to English
Law/Patents
Law: Taxation & Customs
This is taken from a tenancy agreement for the lease of a property in France.
The paragraph is entitled 'article 13 - loyers'.
The preceding sentence is 'le présent bail est consenti et accepté moyennant un loyer annuel de XXEuros hors taxe'.
The full sentence: 'le BAILLEUR ayant opté pour l'assujettissement dudit loyer à la T.V.A. en application de l'article YY du Code Général'.
Can anyone help?
The paragraph is entitled 'article 13 - loyers'.
The preceding sentence is 'le présent bail est consenti et accepté moyennant un loyer annuel de XXEuros hors taxe'.
The full sentence: 'le BAILLEUR ayant opté pour l'assujettissement dudit loyer à la T.V.A. en application de l'article YY du Code Général'.
Can anyone help?
Proposed translations
(English)
| 4 +6 | (as the ... has opted) for said rent to be subject to VAT |
Tony M
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| 4 +1 | has opted to subject the said rent to VAT |
Pascale van Kempen-Herlant
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Change log
Jan 27, 2012 07:09: Tony M Created KOG entry
Proposed translations
+6
34 mins
Selected
(as the ... has opted) for said rent to be subject to VAT
We most usually use this sort of passive construction: "[something] is subject to VAT" --- unless it is from the POV of the tax authorities, of course!
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Note added at 3 heures (2012-01-22 13:17:44 GMT)
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I think Nikki h
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Note added at 3 heures (2012-01-22 13:25:13 GMT)
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I think Nikki has hit the nail on the head (probably the point that W/A was making, but I missed it) --- it's all too easy to fall into the trap of being too literal here, and indeed, "dit" is used much more often in FR than is usually necessary (or desirable!) in EN.
Taking the preceding sentence into account, it might be quite enough to say "Since the... has opted for this rent to be subject to VAT, ..." --- I somehow feel it needs something to acknowledge the fact the rent has just this minute been mentioned. And it seems to me that terms like 'aforesaid' are to be avoided in today's trend towards 'plain(er) English' in legal documents of this nature (perhaps not for the most solemn and formal variety). As ever, with the overriding proviso, unless they are vital for proper comprehension --- not the case here, I feel.
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Note added at 3 heures (2012-01-22 13:17:44 GMT)
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I think Nikki h
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Note added at 3 heures (2012-01-22 13:25:13 GMT)
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I think Nikki has hit the nail on the head (probably the point that W/A was making, but I missed it) --- it's all too easy to fall into the trap of being too literal here, and indeed, "dit" is used much more often in FR than is usually necessary (or desirable!) in EN.
Taking the preceding sentence into account, it might be quite enough to say "Since the... has opted for this rent to be subject to VAT, ..." --- I somehow feel it needs something to acknowledge the fact the rent has just this minute been mentioned. And it seems to me that terms like 'aforesaid' are to be avoided in today's trend towards 'plain(er) English' in legal documents of this nature (perhaps not for the most solemn and formal variety). As ever, with the overriding proviso, unless they are vital for proper comprehension --- not the case here, I feel.
Peer comment(s):
| agree |
David Wright
3 mins
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Thanks, David!
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| agree |
Alistair Ian Spearing Ortiz
30 mins
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Thanks, Alistair!
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| agree |
writeaway
: but hardly a difficult question. fwiw the 'said' used like this is very USAese/I mainly encounter it in USA legal. Don't see it used so much in UK docs. Most native Fr translators tend to use USA legal speak, at least that's been my experience.
1 hr
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Thanks, W/A! OK; I see what you mean, and I do agree that 'said' etc. are often unecessary in translation, please see my revised suggestion in my added note above.
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| agree |
trsk2000 (X)
1 hr
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Thanks Tariq!
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| agree |
Nikki Scott-Despaigne
: Untill Writeaway had mentionned it, I had not thought about it. "dit" is uesd much more in French than in English (British). No idea about frequency of its use in US English. However, 'aforementioned' more common in UK. I agree with W'away; redundant here
2 hrs
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Thanks, Nikki! Oh yes, indeed, may well be redundant altogether, just depends on surrounding wording. Totally agree, over-used in FR ;-)
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| agree |
AllegroTrans
: said, aforesaid or just "the rent" - all acceptable
4 hrs
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Thanks, C!
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4 KudoZ points awarded for this answer.
Comment: "Thanks everyone."
+1
12 mins
Pascale van Kempen-Herlant
Native in French
Translator English/Dutch/Spanish-French
Native in: French 
Works in: Dutch to French, English to French
has opted to subject the said rent to VAT
...ayant opté pour l'assujettissement dudit loyer à la T.V.A
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Note added at 13 mins (2012-01-22 10:00:22 GMT)
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or "....having opted to....
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Note added at 13 mins (2012-01-22 10:00:22 GMT)
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or "....having opted to....
Discussion
http://www.cnrtl.fr/lexicographie/assujettissement
http://www.dictionnaire-juridique.com/definition/assujettiss...
The term alone with the word English gives you hits on Google with a number of clear indications that this is to do with liability, being subject to. Thereafter, it is a matter of phrasing to fit!
(I have deleted the duplicate for you)